Home     Contact Us    
Main Board Job Seeker's Board Job Wanted Board Resume Bank Company Board Word Help Medquist New MTs Classifieds Offshore Concerns VR/Speech Recognition Tech Help Coding/Medical Billing
Gab Board Politics Comedy Stop Health Issues
ADVERTISEMENT




Serving Over 20,000 US Medical Transcriptionists

Another ICD-9 question

Posted By: Habibi on 2008-04-05
In Reply to: ICD9 codes????? - Charlotte Bing

This only happens occasionally, but there's one doc who does this literally all the time on ops:  the code is dictated before the actual diagnosis on preop (as I recall), then on postop it's dictated afterwards.  I hope I got that right, but the "before" and "after" are definitely correct.  It sounds and looks weird, but since it's a verbatim acct, I type it that way.  In a verbatim situation we obviously have to do it that way, but does anyone know why they do it this way sometimes?  Is it normal?


Thanks.




Complete Discussion Below: marks the location of current message within thread

The messages you are viewing are archived/old.
To view latest messages and participate in discussions, select the boards given in left menu


Other related messages found in our database